哲学是爱智慧, 爱智慧乃是对心灵的驯化。 这里是理念的在场、诗意的栖居地。 关注哲学园,认识你自己。 |
哲学王 · 王德峰:西方哲学锻炼头脑,中国哲学滋养心灵 · 12 小时前 |
理想国读书 · 统治者最不希望老百姓读什么书? · 昨天 |
哲学王 · 某大张维某教授极其震撼的演讲! · 昨天 |
哲学王 · 苏联解体的四大原因 · 2 天前 |
哲学园 · 民族性格决定了他们要怎样被统治! · 4 天前 |
一些关于数学基础的基本定理及其意义(1951)
哥德尔
Some basic theorems on the foundations of mathematics and their implications (1951)
Kurt Gödel
Research in the foundations of mathematics during the past few decades has produced some results which seem to me of interest, not only in themselves, but also with regard to their implications for the traditional philosophical problems about the nature of mathematics. The results themselves, I believe, are fairly widely known, but nevertheless I think it will be useful to present them in outline once again, especially in view of the fact that, due to the work of various mathematicians, they have taken on a much more satisfactory form than they had had originally. The greatest improvement was made possible through the precise definition of the concept of finite procedure, which plays a decisive role in these results. There are several different ways of arriving at such a definition, which, however, all lead to exactly the same concept. The most satisfactory way, in my opinion, is that of reducing the concept of finite procedure to that of a machine with a finite number of parts, as has been done by the British mathematician Turing. As to the philosophical consequences of the results under consideration, I don’t think they have ever been adequately discussed, or [have] only [just been] taken notice of.
The metamathematical results I have in mind are all centered around, or, one may even say, are only different aspects of one basic fact, which might be called the incompletability or inexhaustibility of mathematics. This fact is encountered in its simplest form when the axiomatic method is applied, not to some hypothetico-deductive system such as geometry (where the mathematician can assert only the conditional truth of the theorems), but to mathematics proper, that is, to the body of those mathematical propositions which hold in an absolute sense, without any further hypothesis. There must exist propositions of this kind, because otherwise there could not exist any hypothetical theorems either. For example, some implications of the form:
If such and such axioms are assumed, then such and such a theorem holds,
must necessarily be true in an absolute sense. Similarly, any theorem of finitistic number theory, such as 2 + 2 = 4, is, no doubt, of this kind. Of course, the task of axiomatizing mathematics proper differs from the usual conception of axiomatics insofar as the axioms are not arbitrary, but must be correct mathematical propositions, and moreover, evident without proof. There is no escaping the necessity of assuming some axioms or rules of inference as evident without proof, because the proofs must have some starting point. However, there are widely divergent views as to the extension of mathematics proper, as I defined it. The intuitionists and finitists, for example, reject some of its axioms and concepts, which others acknowledge, such as the law of excluded middle or the general concept of set.
The phenomenon of the inexhaustibility of mathematics, however, always is present in some form, no matter what standpoint is taken. So I might as well explain it for the simplest and most natural standpoint, which takes mathematics as it is, without curtailing it by any criticism. From this standpoint all of mathematics is reducible to abstract set theory. For example, the statement that the axioms of projective geometry imply a certain theorem means that if a set ( M ) of elements called points and a set ( N ) of subsets of ( M ) called straight lines satisfy the axioms, then the theorem holds for ( N, M ). Or, to mention another example, a theorem of number theory can be interpreted to be an assertion about finite sets.
So the problem at stake is that of axiomatizing set theory. Now, if one attacks this problem, the result is quite different from what one would have expected. Instead of ending up with a finite number of axioms, as in geometry, one is faced with an infinite series of axioms, which can be extended further and further, without any end being visible and, apparently, without any possibility of comprising all these axioms in a finite rule producing them.
This comes about through the circumstance that, if one wants to avoid the paradoxes of set theory without bringing in something entirely extraneous to actual mathematical procedure, the concept of set must be axiomatized in a stepwise manner. If, for example, we begin with the integers, that is, the finite sets of a special kind, we have at first the sets of integers and the axioms referring to them (axioms of the first level), then the sets of sets of integers with their axioms (axioms of the second level), and so on for any finite iteration of the operation “set of”. Next we have the set of all these sets of finite order. But now we can deal with this set in exactly the same manner as we dealt with the set of integers before, that is, consider the subsets of it (that is, the sets of order ( \omega )) and formulate axioms about their existence.
Evidently this procedure can be iterated beyond ( \omega ), in fact up to any transfinite ordinal number. So it may be required as the next axiom that the iteration is possible for any ordinal, that is, for any order type belonging to some well-ordered set. But are we at an end now? By no means. For we have now a new operation of forming sets, namely, forming a set out of some initial set ( A ) and some well-ordered set ( B ) by applying the operation “set of” to ( A ) as many times as the well-ordered set ( B ) indicates. And, setting ( B ) equal to some well-ordering of ( A ), now we can iterate this new operation, and again iterate it into the transfinite. This will give rise to a new operation again, which we can treat in the same way, and so on. So the next step will be to require that any operation producing sets out of sets can be iterated up to ( | ) any ordinal number (that is, order type of a well-ordered set). But are we at an end now? No, because we can require not only that the procedure just described can be carried out with any
operation, but that moreover there should exist a set closed with respect
to it, that is, one which has the property that, if this procedure (with any
operation) is applied to elements of this set, it again yields elements of this
set. You will realize, I think, that we are still not at an end, nor can there
ever be an end to this procedure of forming the axioms, because the very
formulation of the axioms up to a certain stage gives rise to the next axiom.
It is true that in the mathematics of today the higher levels of this hierar-
chy are practically never used. It is safe to say that 99.9% of present-day
mathematics is contained in the first three levels of this hierarchy. So for all
practical purposes, all of mathematics can be reduced to a finite number of
axioms. However, this is a mere historical accident, which is of no impor-
tance for questions of principle. Moreover it is not altogether unlikely that
this character of present-day mathematics may have something to do with
another character of it, namely, its inability to prove certain fundamental
theorems, such as, for example, Riemann’s hypothesis, in spite of many
years of effort. For it can be shown that the axioms for sets of high levels,
in their relevance, are by no means confined to these sets, but, on the con-
trary, have consequences even for the 0-level, that is, the theory of integers.
To be more exact, each of these set-theoretical axioms entails the solution
of certain diophantine problems which had been undecidable on the basis
of the preceding axioms.
The diophantine problems in question are of the
following type: Let ( P(x₁, ..., xₙ, y₁, ..., yₘ) ) be a polynomial with given in-
tegral coefficients and ( n + m ) variables, ({x₁, ..., xₙ, y₁, ..., yₘ}), and consider
the variables (x₁) as the unknowns and the variables (y₁) as parameters; then
the problem is: Has the equation (P = 0) integral solutions for any integral
values of the parameters, or are there integral values of the parameters for
which this equation has no integral solutions? To each of the set-theoretical
axioms a certain polynomial (P) can be assigned, for which the problem just
formulated becomes decidable owing to this axiom. It even can always be
achieved that the degree of (P) is not higher than 4. [The] mathematics of
today has not yet learned to make use of the set-theoretical axioms for
the solution of number-theoretical problems, except for the axioms of the
first level. These are actually used in analytic number theory. But for
mastering number theory this is demonstrably insufficient. Some kind of set-theoretical number theory, still to be discovered, would certainly reach much farther.
I have tried so far to explain the fact I call [the] incompletability of mathematics for one particular approach to the foundations of mathematics, namely axiomatics of set theory. That, however, this fact is entirely independent of the particular approach and standpoint chosen appears from certain very general theorems. The first of these theorems simply states that, whatever well-defined system of axioms and rules of inference may be chosen, there always exist diophantine problems of the type described which are undecidable by these axioms and rules, provided only that no false propositions of this type are derivable.
If I speak of a well-defined system of axioms and rules here, this only means that it must be possible actually to write the axioms down in some precise formalism or, if their number is infinite, a finite procedure for writing them down one after the other must be given. Likewise the rules of inference are to be such that, given any premises, either the conclusion (by any one of the rules of inference) can be written down, or it can be ascertained that there exists no immediate conclusion by the rule of inference under consideration. This requirement for the rules and axioms is equivalent to the requirement that it should be possible to build a finite machine, in the precise sense of a "Turing machine", which will write down all the consequences of the axioms one after the other. For this reason, the theorem under consideration is equivalent to the fact that there exists no finite procedure for the systematic decision of all diophantine problems of the type specified.
The second theorem has to do with the concept of freedom from contradiction. For a well-defined system of axioms and rules the question of their consistency is, of course, itself a well-defined mathematical question. Moreover, since the symbols and propositions of [any] one formalism are always at most enumerable, everything can be mapped onto the integers, and it is plausible and in fact demonstrable that the question of consistency can always be transformed into a number-theoretical question (to be more exact, into one of the type described above). Now the theorem says that **for any well-defined system of axioms and rules, in particular, the proposition stating their consistency (or rather the equivalent number-theoretical proposition) is undemonstrable from these axioms and rules, provided these axioms and rules are consistent and suffice to derive a certain portion of the finitistic arithmetic of integers. It is this theorem which makes the incompletability of mathematics particularly evident. For, it makes it impossible that someone should set up a certain well-defined system of axioms and rules and consistently make the following assertion about it: All of these axioms and rules I perceive (with mathematical certitude) to be correct, and moreover I believe that they contain all of mathematics. If someone makes such a statement he contradicts himself. (^{11}) For if he perceives the axioms under consideration to be correct, he also perceives (with the same certainty) that they are consistent. Hence he has a mathematical insight not derivable from his axioms. However, one has to be careful in order to understand clearly the meaning of this state of affairs. Does it mean that no well-defined system of correct axioms can contain all of mathematics proper? It does, if by mathematics proper is understood the system of all true mathematical propositions; it does not, however, if one understands by it the system of all demonstrable mathematical propositions. I shall distinguish these two meanings of mathematics as mathematics in the objective and in the subjective sense: Evidently no well-defined system of correct axioms can comprise all [of] objective mathematics, since the proposition which states the consistency of the system is true, but not demonstrable in the system. However, as to subjective mathematics, it is not precluded that there should exist a finite rule producing all its evident axioms. However, if such a rule exists, we with our human understanding could certainly never know it to be such, that is, we could never know with mathematical certanity that all propositions it produces are correct; (^{12}) or in other terms, we could perceive to be true only one proposition after the other, for any finite number of them. The assertion, however, that they are all true could at most be known with empirical certainty, on the basis of a sufficient number of instances or by other inductive inferences. (^{13}) If it were so, this would mean that the human mind (in the realm of pure mathematics) is equivalent to a finite machine that, however, is unable to understand completely (^{14}) its own functioning. This inability [of man] to understand himself would then wrongly appear to him as its [the mind's] boundlessness or inexhaustibility. But, please, note that if it were so, this would in no way derogate from the incompletability of objective mathematics. On the contrary, it would only make it particularly striking. For if the human mind were equivalent to a finite machine, then objective mathematics not only would be incompletable in the sense of not being contained in any well-defined axiomatic system, but moreover there would exist absolutely unsolvable diophantine problems of the type described above, where the epithet “absolutely” means that they would be undecidable, not just within some particular axiomatic system, but by any mathematical proof the human mind can conceive. So the following disjunctive conclusion is inevitable: Either mathematics is incompletable in this sense, that its evident axioms can never be comprised in a finite rule, that is to say, the human mind (even within the realm of pure mathematics) infinitely surpasses the powers of any finite machine, or else there exist absolutely unsolvable diophantine problems of the type specified (where the case that both terms of the disjunction are true is not excluded, so that there are, strictly speaking, three alternatives). It is this mathematically established fact which seems to me of great philosophical interest. Of course, in this connection it is of great importance that at least this fact is entirely independent of the special standpoint taken toward the foundations of mathematics. (^{15})
There is, however, one restriction to this independence, namely, the standpoint taken must be liberal enough to admit propositions about all integers as meaningful. If someone were so strict a finitist that he would maintain that only particular propositions of the type (2 + 2 = 4) belong to mathematics proper, (^{16}) then the incompletability theorem would not apply—at least not this incompletability theorem. But I don’t think that such an attitude could be maintained consistently, because it is by exactly the same kind of evidence that we judge that (2+2=4) and that (a+b=b+a) for any two integers (a, b). Moreover, this standpoint, in order to be consistent, would have to exclude also concepts that refer to all integers, such as “+” (or to all formulas, such as “correct proof by such and such rules”) and replace them with others that apply only within some finite domain of integers (or formulas). It is to be noted, however, that although the truth of the disjunctive theorem is independent of the standpoint taken, the question as to which alternative holds need not be independent of it. (See footnote [15].)
I think I now have explained sufficiently the mathematical aspect of the situation and can turn to the philosophical implications. Of course, in consequence of the undeveloped state of philosophy in our days, you must not expect these inferences to be drawn with mathematical rigour.
Corresponding to the disjunctive form of the main theorem about the incompletability of mathematics, the philosophical implications prima facie will be disjunctive too; however, under either alternative they are very decidedly opposed to materialistic philosophy. Namely, if the first alternative holds, this seems to imply that the working of the human mind cannot be reduced to the working of the brain, which to all appearances is a finite machine with a finite number of parts, namely, the neurons and their connections. So apparently one is driven to take some vitalistic viewpoint. On the other hand, the second alternative, where there exist absolutely undecidable mathematical propositions, seems to disprove the view that mathematics is only our own creation; for the creator necessarily knows all properties of his creatures, because they can’t have any others except those he has given to them. So this alternative seems to imply that mathematical objects and facts (or at least something in them) exist objectively and independently of our mental acts and decisions, that is to say, [it seems to imply] some form or other of Platonism or “realism” as to the mathematical objects.For, the empirical interpretation of mathematics, that is, the view that mathematical facts are a special kind of physical or psychological facts, is too absurd to be seriously maintained (see below). It is not known whether the first alternative holds, but at any rate it is in good agreement with the opinions of some of the leading men in brain and nerve physiology, who very decidedly deny the possibility of a purely mechanistic explanation of psychical and nervous processes.
As far as the second alternative is concerned, one might object that the constructor need not necessarily know every property of what he constructs. For example, we build machines and still cannot predict their behaviour in every detail. But this objection is very poor. For we don’t create the machines out of nothing, but build them out of some given material. If the situation were similar in mathematics, then this material or basis for our constructions would be something objective and would force some realistic viewpoint upon us even if certain other ingredients of mathematics were our own creation. The same would be true if in our creations we were to use some instrument in us but different from our ego (such as “reason” interpreted as something like a thinking machine). For mathematical facts would then (at least in part) express properties of this instrument, which would have an objective existence.
One may thirdly object that the meaning of a proposition about all integers, since it is impossible to verify it for all integers one by one, can consist only in the existence of a general proof. Therefore, in the case of an undecidable proposition about all integers, neither itself nor its negation is true. Hence neither expresses an objectively existing but unknown property of the integers. I am not in a position now to discuss the epistemological question as to whether this opinion is at all consistent. It certainly looks as if one must first understand the meaning of a proposition before he can understand a proof of it, so that the meaning of "all" could not be defined in terms of the meaning of "proof". But independently of this epistemological investigation, I wish to point out that one may conjecture the truth of a universal proposition (for example, that I shall be able to verify a certain property for any integer given to me) and at the same time conjecture that no general proof for this fact exists. It is easy to imagine situations in which both these conjectures would be very well founded. For the first half of it, this would, for example, be the case if the proposition in question were some equation (F(n) = G(n)) of two number-theoretical functions which could be verified up to very great numbers (n). Moreover, exactly as in the natural sciences, this inductio per enumerationem simplicem is by no means the only inductive method conceivable in mathematics. I admit that every mathematician has an inborn abhorrence to giving more than heuristic significance to such inductive arguments. I think, however, that this is due to the very prejudice that mathematical objects somehow have no real existence. If mathematics describes an objective world just like physics, there is no reason why inductive methods should not be applied in mathematics just the same as in physics. The fact is that in mathematics we still have the same attitude today that in former times one had toward all science, namely, we try to derive everything by cogent proofs from the definitions (that is, in ontological terminology, from the essences of things). Perhaps this method, if it claims monopoly, is as wrong in mathematics as it was in physics.
This whole consideration incidentally shows that the philosophical implications of the mathematical facts explained do not lie entirely on the side of rationalistic or idealistic philosophy, but that in one respect they favor the empiricist viewpoint. It is true that only the second alternative points in this direction.Howerve,and this is the item i would to discuss now, it seems to me that the philosophical conclusions drawn under the second alternative, in particular, conceptual realism (Platonism), are supported by modern developments in the foundations of mathematics also, irrespectively of which alternative holds. The main arguments pointing in this direction seem to me [to be] the following. First of all, if mathematics were our free creation, ignorance as to the objects we created, it is true, might still occur, but only through lack of a clear realization as to what we really have created (or, perhaps, due to the practical difficulty of too complicated computations). Therefore it would have to disappear (at least in principle, although perhaps not in practice (^{21})) as soon as we attain perfect clearness. However, modern developments in the foundations of mathematics have accomplished an insurmountable degree of exactness, but this has helped practically nothing for the solution of mathematical problems.
Secondly, the activity of the mathematician shows very little of the freedom a creator should enjoy. Even if, for example, the axioms about integers were a free invention, still it must be admitted that the mathematician, after he has imagined the first few properties of his objects, is at an end with his creative ability, and he is not in a position also to create the validity of the theorems at his will. If anything like creation exists at all in mathematics, then what any theorem does is exactly to restrict the freedom of creation. That, however, which restricts it must evidently exist independently of the creation.(^{22})
Thirdly, if mathematical objects are our creations, then evidently integers and sets of integers will have to be two different creations, the first of which does not necessitate the second. However, in order to prove certain propositions about integers, the concept of set of integers is necessary. So here, in order to find out what properties we have [given] to certain objects of our imagination, [we] must first create certain other objects—a very strange situation indeed!
What I [have] said so far has been formulated in terms of the rather vague concept of "free creation" or "free invention". There exist attempts to give a more precise meaning to this term. However, this only has the consequence that also the disproof of the standpoint in question is becoming more precise and cogent. I would like to show this in detail for the most precise, and at the same time most radical, formulation that has been given so far. It is that which ( c | ) interprets mathematical propositions as expressing solely certain aspects of syntactical (or linguistic)( ^{23} ) conventions, that is,they simply repeat parts of these conventions. According to this view, mathematical propositions, duly analyzed, must turn out to be as void of content as, for example, the statement "All stallions are horses". Everybody will agree that this proposition does not express any zoological or other objective fact, but [rather,] its truth is due solely to the circumstance that we chose to use the term "stallion" as an abbreviation for "male horse".
Now by far the most common type of symbolic conventions are definitions (either explicit or contextual, where the latter however must be such as to make it possible to eliminate the term defined in any context [where] it occurs). Therefore the simplest version of the view in question would consist in the assertion that mathematical propositions are true solely owing to the definitions of the terms occurring in them, that is, that by successively replacing all terms by their definition, any theorem can be reduced to an explicit tautology, ( a = a ). (Note that ( a = a ) must be admitted as true if definitions are admitted, for one may define ( b ) by ( b = a ) and then, owing to this definition, replace ( b ) by ( a ) in this equality.) But now it follows directly from the theorems mentioned before that such a reduction to explicit tautologies is impossible. For it would immediately yield a mechanical procedure for deciding about the truth or falsehood of every mathematical proposition. Such a procedure, however, cannot exist, not even for number theory.
This disproof, it is true, refers only to the simplest version of this (nominalistic) standpoint. But the more refined ones do not fare any better. The weakest statement that at least would have to be demonstrable, in order that this view concerning the tautological character of mathematics be tenable, is the following: Every demonstrable mathematical proposition can be deduced from the rules about the truth and falsehood of sentences alone (that is, without using or knowing anything else except these rules) and the negations of demonstrable mathematical propositions cannot be so derived.
In precisely formulated languages, such rules (that is, rules which stipulate under which conditions a given sentence is true) occur as a means for determining the meaning of sentences. Moreover in all known languages there are propositions which seem to be true owing to these rules alone. For example, if disjunction and negation are introduced by those rules:
( p \lor q ) is true if at least one of its terms is true, and
( \sim p ) is true if ( p ) is not true.
Then it clearly follows from these rules that ( p \lor \sim p ) is always true whatever ( p ) may be. (Propositions so derivable are called tautologies.) Now it is actually so, that for the symbolisms of mathematical logic, with suitably chosen semantical rules, the truth of the mathematical axioms is derivable from these rules;^25 however (and this is the great stumbling block), in this derivation the mathematical and logical concepts and axioms themselves must be used in a special application, namely, as referring to symbols, combinations of symbols, sets of such combinations, etc. Hence this theory, if it wants to prove the tautological character of the mathematical axioms, must first assume these axioms to be true. So while the original idea of this viewpoint was to make the truth of the mathematical axioms understandable by showing that they are tautologies, it ends up with just the opposite, that is, the truth of the axioms must first be assumed and then it can be shown that, in a suitably chosen language, they are tautologies.
Moreover, a similar statement holds good for the mathematical concepts, that is, instead of being able to define their meaning by means of symbolic conventions, one must first know their meaning in order to understand the syntactical conventions in question or the proof that they imply the mathematical axioms but not their negations. Now, of course, it is clear that this elaboration of the nominalistic view does not satisfy the requirement set up on page [25?], because not the syntactic rules alone, but all of mathematics in addition is used in the derivations. But moreover, this elaboration of nominalism would yield an outright disproof of it (I must confess I can’t picture any better disproof of this view than this proof of it), provided that one thing could be added, namely, that the outcome described is unavoidable (that is, independent of the particular symbolic language and interpretation of mathematics chosen). Now it is not exactly this that can be proved, but something so close to it that it also suffices to disprove the view in question. Namely, it follows by the metatheorems mentioned that a proof for the tautological character (in a suitable language) of the mathematical axioms is at the same time a proof for their consistency, and cannot be achieved with any weaker means of proof than are contained in these axioms themselves. This does not mean that all the axioms of a given system must be used in its consistency proof. On the contrary, usually the axioms lying outside the system which are necessary make it possible to dispense with some of the axioms of the system (although they do not imply the latter).^26 However, what follows with practical certainty is this: In order to prove the consistency of classical number theory (and a fortiori of all stronger systems) certain abstract concepts (and the directly evident axioms referring to them) must be used, where “abstract” means concepts which do not refer to sense objects,^27 of which symbols are a special kind. These abstract concepts, however, are certainly not syntactical [but rather those whose justification by syntactical considerations should be the main task of nominalism]. Hence it follows that there exists no rational justification of our precritical beliefs concerning the applicability and consistency of classical mathematics (nor even its undermost level, number theory) on the basis of a syntactical interpretation. It is true that this statement does not apply to certain subsystems of classical mathematics, which may even contain some part of the theory of the abstract concepts referred to. In this sense, nominalism can point to some partial successes. For it is actually possible to base the axioms of these systems on purely syntactical considerations. In this manner, for example, the use of the concepts of “all” and “there is” referring to integers can be justified (that is, proved consistent) by means of syntactical considerations. However, for the most essential number-theoretic axiom, complete induction, such a syntactical foundation, even within the limits in which it is possible, gives no justification of our precritical belief in it, since this axiom itself has to be used.in the syntactical considerations.^28 The fact that the more modest you are in the axioms for which you want to set up a tautological interpretation, the less of mathematics you need in order to do it, has the consequence that if finally you become so modest as to confine yourself to some finite domain, for example, to the integers up to 1000, then the mathematical propositions valid in this field can be so interpreted as to be tautological even in the strictest sense, that is, reducible to explicit tautologies by means of the explicit definitions of the terms. No wonder, because the section of mathematics necessary for the proof of the consistency of this finite mathematics is contained already in the theory of the finite combinatorial processes which are necessary in order to reduce a formula to an explicit tautology by substitutions. This explains the well-known, but misleading, fact that formulas like ( 5 + 7 = 12 ) can, by means of certain definitions, be reduced to explicit tautologies. This fact, incidentally, is misleading also for the reason that in these reductions (if they are to be interpreted as simple substitutions of the definiens for the definiendum on the basis of explicit definitions), the ( + ) is not identical with the ordinary ( + ), because it can be defined only for a finite number of arguments (by an enumeration of this finite number of cases). If, on the other hand, ( + ) is defined contextually, then one has to use the concept of finite manifold already in the proof of ( 2 + 2 = 4 ). A similar circularity also occurs in the proof that ( p \lor \neg p ) is a tautology, because disjunction and negation, in their intuitive meanings, evidently occur in it.
The essence of this view is that there exists no such thing as a mathematical fact, that the truth of propositions which we believe express mathematical facts only means that (due to the rather complicated rules which define the meaning of propositions, that is, which determine under what circumstances a given proposition is true) an idle running of language occurs in these propositions, in that the said rules make them true no matter what the facts are. Such propositions can rightly be called void of content. Now it [is] actually possible to build up a language in which mathematical propositions are void of content in this sense. The only trouble is:
that one has to use the very same mathematical facts^8 (or equally complicated other mathematical facts) in order to show that they don’t exist;
that by this method, if a division of the empirical facts into two parts, ( A ) and ( B ), is given such that ( B ) implies nothing in ( A ), a language can be constructed in which the propositions expressing ( B ) would be void of content. And if your opponent were to say: "You are arbitrarily disregarding certain observable facts ( B )", one may answer: "You are doing the same thing, for example with the law of complete induction, which I perceive to be true on the basis of my understanding (that is, perception) of the concept of integer."
However it seems to me that nevertheless one ingredient of this wrong theory of mathematical truth is perfectly correct and really discloses the true nature of mathematics. Namely, it is correct that a mathematical proposition says nothing about the physical or psychical reality existing in space and time, because it is true already owing to the meaning of the terms occurring in it, irrespectively of the world of real things. What is wrong, however, is that the meaning of the terms (that is, the concepts they denote) is asserted to be something man-made and consisting merely in semantical conventions. The truth, I believe, is that these concepts form an objective reality of their own, which we cannot create or change, but only perceive and describe.^29
Therefore a mathematical proposition, although it does not say anything about space-time reality, still may have a very sound objective content, insofar as it says something about relations of concepts. The existence of non-"tautological" relations between the concepts of mathematics appears above all in the circumstance that for the primitive terms of mathematics, axioms must be assumed, which are by no means tautologies (in the sense of being in any way reducible to (a = a)), but still do follow from the meaning of the primitive terms under consideration. For example, the basic axiom, or rather, axiom schema, for the concept of set of integers says that, given a well-defined property of integers (that is, a propositional expression (\varphi(n)) with an integer variable (n)), there exists the set (M) of those integers which have the property (\varphi). Now, considering the circumstance that (\varphi) may itself contain the term "set of integers", we have here a series of rather involved axioms about the concept of set. Nevertheless, these axioms (as the aforementioned results show) cannot be reduced to anything substantially simpler, let alone to explicit tautologies. It is true that these axioms are valid owing to the meaning of the term "set"—one might even say they express the very meaning of the term "set"—and therefore they might fittingly be called analytic; however, the term "tautological", that is, devoid of content, for them is entirely out of place, because even the assertion of the existence of a concept of set satisfying these axioms (or of the consistency of these axioms) is so far from being empty that it cannot be proved without again using the concept of set itself, or some other abstract concept of a similar nature.
Of course, this particular argument is addressed only to mathematicians who admit the general concept of set in mathematics proper. For finitists, however, literally the same argument could be alleged for the concept of integer and the axiom of complete induction. For, if the general concept of set is not admitted in mathematics proper, then complete induction must be assumed as an axiom.
I wish to repeat that "analytic" here does not mean "true owing to our definitions", but rather "true owing to the nature of the concepts occurring [therein]", in contradistinction to "true owing to the properties and the behavior of things". This concept of analytic is so far from meaning "void of content" that it is perfectly possible that an analytic proposition might be undecidable (or decidable only with [a certain] probability). For, our knowledge of the world of concepts may be as limited and incomplete as that of [the] world of things. It is certainly undeniable that this knowledge, in certain cases, not only is incomplete, but even indistinct. This occurs in the paradoxes of set theory, which are frequently alleged as a disproof of Platonism, but, I think, quite unjustly. Our visual perceptions sometimes contradict our tactile perceptions, for example, in the case of a rod immersed in water, but nobody in his right mind will conclude from this fact that the outer world does not exist.
I have purposely spoken of two separate worlds (the world of things and the world of concepts), because I do not think that Aristotelian realism (according to which concepts are parts or aspects of things) is tenable.
Of course I do not claim that the foregoing considerations amount to a real proof of this view about the nature of mathematics. The most I could assert would be to have disproved the nominalistic view, which considers mathematics to consist solely in syntactical conventions and their consequences. Moreover, I have adduced some strong arguments against the more general view that mathematics is our own creation. There are, however, other alternatives to Platonism, in particular psychologism and Aristotelian realism. In order to establish Platonistic realism, these theories would have to be disproved one after the other, and then it would have to be shown that they exhaust all possibilities. I am not in a position to do this now; however, I would like to give some indications along these lines. One possible form of psychologism admits that mathematics investigates relations of concepts and that concepts cannot be created at our will, but are given to us as a reality, which we cannot change; however, it contends that these concepts are only psychological dispositions, that is, that they are nothing but, so to speak, the wheels of our thinking machine. To be more exact, a concept would consist in the disposition
to have a certain mental experience when we think of it
and
to pass certain judgments (or have certain experiences of direct knowledge) about its relations to other concepts and to empirical objects.
The essence of this psychologistic view is that the object of mathematics is nothing but the psychological laws by which thoughts, convictions, and so on occur in us, in the same sense as the object of another part of psychology is the laws by which emotions occur in us. The chief objection to this view I can see at the present moment is that if it were correct, we would have no mathematical knowledge whatsoever. We would not know, for example, that 2 + 2 = 4, but only that our mind is so constituted as to hold this to be true, and there would then be no reason whatsoever why, by some other train of thought, we should not arrive at the opposite conclusion with the same degree of certainty. Hence, whoever assumes that there is some domain, however small, of mathematical propositions which we know to be true, cannot accept this view.*
I am under the impression that after sufficient clarification of the concepts in question it will be possible to conduct these discussions with mathematical rigour and that the result then will be that (under certain assumptions which can hardly be denied [in particular the assumption that there exists at all something like mathematical knowledge]) the Platonistic view is the only one tenable. Thereby I mean the view that mathematics describes a non-sensual reality, which exists independently both of the acts and [of] the dispositions of the human mind and is only perceived, and probably perceived very incompletely, by the human mind. This view is rather unpopular among mathematicians; there exist, however, some great mathematicians who have adhered to it. For example, Hermite once wrote the following sentence:
Il existe, si je ne me trompe, tout un monde qui est l’ensemble des vérités mathématiques, dans lequel nous n’avons accès que par l’intelligence, comme existe le monde des réalités physiques; l’un et l’autre indépendants de nous, tous deux de création divine._ 30
[There exists, unless I am mistaken, an entire world consisting of the totality of mathematical truths, which is accessible to us only through our intelligence, just as there exists the world of physical realities; each one is independent of us, both of them divinely created.]
哲学王 · 王德峰:西方哲学锻炼头脑,中国哲学滋养心灵 12 小时前 |
理想国读书 · 统治者最不希望老百姓读什么书? 昨天 |
哲学王 · 某大张维某教授极其震撼的演讲! 昨天 |
哲学王 · 苏联解体的四大原因 2 天前 |
哲学园 · 民族性格决定了他们要怎样被统治! 4 天前 |
谷歌开发者 · 官宣|谷歌开发者中文博客正式发布 7 年前 |
头图 · 学会这招以后,数学老师都笑了 7 年前 |
跟大厨学做菜 · 夫妻之夜,衣服一脱,女人泪崩!男女一定要看! 7 年前 |
射手座网 · 射手座的牵手成功的人是谁? 7 年前 |
父母必读 · 3~6岁孩子财商培养工作坊,报名从速 7 年前 |